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Other free theoremsGiven, f : ∀a:*. a → a → a we can take a = {x,y} to show that for a particular x,y, either: f x y = x, or f x y = y My question is how to formally reason that f is uniformly defined by one of those equations. What property of f is needed? Informally, it's easy to reason that there is nothing f could branch on, but I don't see how to generalize. Thanks By Matt M at 20111022 19:51  LtU Forum  previous forum topic  next forum topic  other blogs  3897 reads

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